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There are a few prerequisites that one must comply with before sitting for the Fortinet NSE8_812 exam. NSE8_812 exam requires that the candidates already have a valid NSE 7 certification. The NSE7 exams encompass a broad range of network security topics, including authentication, web filtering, and endpoint protection. The Fortinet NSE8_812 exam builds upon these skills and focuses on advanced network security topics such as SD-WAN, AI, and SD-Branch.
Fortinet NSE8_812 exam is a challenging test that requires a deep understanding of Fortinet's Security Fabric and the ability to apply this knowledge in real-world scenarios. Candidates who Pass NSE8_812 Exam will have demonstrated their ability to design, implement, and manage complex security solutions using Fortinet technologies, which is a valuable skillset in today's rapidly evolving cybersecurity landscape. Fortinet NSE 8 - Written Exam (NSE8_812) certification is also a testament to the candidate's commitment to professional development and their dedication to staying up-to-date with the latest security technologies and best practices. Overall, the Fortinet NSE8_812 certification is a valuable credential for network security professionals who want to advance their careers and demonstrate their expertise in Fortinet security technologies.
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Fortinet NSE8_812 Certification Exam covers a wide range of topics related to network security, including advanced threat protection, network design and architecture, and security operations and management. NSE8_812 exam also includes questions that test your ability to troubleshoot and optimize Fortinet solutions, as well as your understanding of emerging security trends and best practices. To pass the exam, you'll need to demonstrate a deep understanding of all these topics and be able to apply your knowledge to real-world scenarios.
Fortinet NSE 8 - Written Exam (NSE8_812) Sample Questions (Q76-Q81):
NEW QUESTION # 76
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A
Exhibit B
Exhibit C
A customer is trying to set up a VPN with a FortiGate, but they do not have a backup of the configuration. Output during a troubleshooting session is shown in the exhibits A and B and a baseline VPN configuration is shown in Exhibit C Referring to the exhibits, which configuration will restore VPN connectivity?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The output in Exhibit A shows that the VPN tunnel is not established because the peer IP address is incorrect. The output in Exhibit B shows that the peer IP address is 192.168.1.100, but the baseline VPN configuration in Exhibit C shows that the peer IP address should be 192.168.1.101.
To restore VPN connectivity, you need to change the peer IP address in the VPN tunnel configuration to 192.168.1.101. The correct configuration is shown below:
config vpn ipsec phase1-interface
edit "wan"
set peer-ip 192.168.1.101
set peer-id 192.168.1.101
set dhgrp 1
set auth-mode psk
set psk SECRET_PSK
next
end
Option A is incorrect because it does not change the peer IP address. Option B is incorrect because it changes the peer IP address to 192.168.1.100, which is the incorrect IP address. Option D is incorrect because it does not include the necessary configuration for the VPN tunnel.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A customer is planning on moving their secondary data center to a cloud-based laaS. They want to place all the Oracle-based systems Oracle Cloud, while the other systems will be on Microsoft Azure with ExpressRoute service to their main data center.
They have about 200 branches with two internet services as their only WAN connections. As a security consultant you are asked to design an architecture using Fortinet products with security, redundancy and performance as a priority.
Which two design options are true based on these requirements? (Choose two.)
- A. Systems running on Azure will need to go through the main data center to access the services on Oracle Cloud.
- B. Two ExpressRoute services to the main data center are required to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge
- C. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured as VPN clients for the branches' internal network to be able to access Oracle services without using public IPs.
- D. Use FortiGate VM for IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
a) Systems running on Azure will need to go through the main data center to access the services on Oracle Cloud. This is because the Oracle Cloud is not directly connected to the Azure Cloud. The traffic will need to go through the main data center in order to reach the Oracle Cloud.
c) Branch FortiGate devices must be configured as VPN clients for the branches' internal network to be able to access Oracle services without using public IPs. This is because the Oracle Cloud does not allow direct connections from the internet. The traffic will need to go through the FortiGate devices in order to reach the Oracle Cloud.
The other options are not correct.
b) Use FortiGate VM for IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure. This is not necessary. Azure does encrypt traffic over ExpressRoute.
d) Two ExpressRoute services to the main data center are required to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge. This is not necessary. A single ExpressRoute service can be used to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Refer to the exhibits.
A FortiGate cluster (CL-1) protects a data center hosting multiple web applications. A pair of FortiADC devices are already configured for SSL decryption (FAD-1), and re-encryption (FAD-2). CL-1 must accept unencrypted traffic from FAD-1, perform application detection on the plain-text traffic, and forward the inspected traffic to FAD-2.
The SSL-Offload-App-Detect application list and SSL-Offload protocol options profile are applied to the firewall policy handling the web application traffic on CL-1.
Given this scenario, which two configuration tasks must the administrator perform on CL-1? (Choose two.)
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
To enable application detection on plain-text traffic that has been decrypted by FortiADC, the administrator must perform two configuration tasks on CL-1:
* Enable SSL offloading in the firewall policy and select the SSL-Offload protocol options profile.
* Enable application control in the firewall policy and select the SSL-Offload-App-Detect application list.
References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103438/application-detection- on-ssl-offloaded-traffic
NEW QUESTION # 79
You want to use the MTA adapter feature on FortiSandbox in an HA-Cluster. Which statement about this solution is true?
- A. The configuration of the MTA Adapter Local Interface is different than on port1.
- B. The MTA adapter is only available in the primary node.
- C. The configuration is different than on a standalone device.
- D. The MTA adapter mode is only detection mode.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MTA adapter feature on FortiSandbox is a feature that allows FortiSandbox to act as a mail transfer agent (MTA) that can receive, inspect, and forward email messages from external sources. The MTA adapter feature can be used to integrate FortiSandbox with third-party email security solutions that do not support direct integration with FortiSandbox, such as Microsoft Exchange Server or Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA). The MTA adapter feature can also be used to enhance email security by adding an additional layer of inspection and filtering before delivering email messages to the final destination. The MTA adapter feature can be enabled on FortiSandbox in an HA-Cluster, which is a configuration that allows two FortiSandbox units to synchronize their settings and data and provide high availability and load balancing for sandboxing services. However, one statement about this solution that is true is that the MTA adapter is only available in the primary node. This means that only one FortiSandbox unit in the HA-Cluster can act as an MTA and receive email messages from external sources, while the other unit acts as a backup node that can take over the MTA role if the primary node fails or loses connectivity. This also means that only one IP address or FQDN can be used to configure the external sources to send email messages to the FortiSandbox MTA, which is the IP address or FQDN of the primary node. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisandbox
/3.2.0/administration-guide/19662/mail-transfer-agent-mtahttps://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisandbox/3.
2.0/administration-guide/19662/high-availability-ha
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisandbox/4.4.3/administration-guide/877925/mta-adapter
NEW QUESTION # 80
Refer to the exhibit.
You are deploying a FortiGate 6000F. The device should be directly connected to a switch. In the future, a new hardware module providing higher speed will be installed in the switch, and the connection to the FortiGate must be moved to this higher-speed port.
You must ensure that the initial FortiGate interface connected to the switch does not affect any other port when the new module is installed and the new port speed is defined.
How should the initial connection be made?
- A. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 5 to 8.
- B. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 1 to 4
- C. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 25 to 28
- D. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 21 to 24
Answer: D
Explanation:
The FortiGate 6000F is a high-performance firewall appliance that has 28 network interfaces with different speeds and types. The device should be directly connected to a switch that will have a new hardware module providing higher speed in the future. The connection to the FortiGate must be moved to this higher-speed port without affecting any other port. Therefore, the initial connection should be made on any interface between ports 21 to 24, which are 10G SFP+ interfaces. These interfaces are independent from each other and do not share bandwidth with any other interface. This means that moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will not affect any other port on the FortiGate. Option A shows the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because ports 25 to 28 are 40G QSFP+ interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 21 to 24. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Option C is incorrect because ports 1 to 4 are 100G QSFP28 interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 5 to 8 and ports 9 to 12. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Option D is incorrect because ports 5 to 8 are 25G SFP28 interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 1 to 4 and ports 9 to 12. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/hardware-acceleration-guide/19662/fortigate-6000f
NEW QUESTION # 81
......
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